Do your best to explain the difference between mortal and venial sins without using any theological language.

)     In the second paragraph of Q. 7, A. 1 (p. 269), Aquinas writes: “[A] sin is not such a kind of sin because it deserves such a punishment. Rather, conversely, a sin deserves such a punishment because it is such a kind of sin.” What does he mean by this?

2)     In Q. 7, A.1 Aquinas discusses a number of possible ways to differential mortal and venial sins. Ultimately, what does he decide is the essential difference between a mortal sin and a venial sin? What analogy does he use to illustrate his point?

3)     Do your best to explain the difference between mortal and venial sins without using any theological language.

4)     Provide your own examples of mortal and venial sin and explain why they are mortal  or venial. (For mortal sin you may *not* use murder or theft as your example.)

5)     In Q. 7, A. 1, Reply to Objection 22, Aquinas writes: “It is one thing not to be rightly ordered to God [charity], which belongs to venial sin, and another thing to exclude the right ordination to God [charity], which belongs to mortal sin” (p. 273). Explain, in your own words, what Aquinas is saying here. 

6)     In the final paragraph of Q. 7, A. 3 (p. 283), Aquinas claims that many venial sins cannot become mortal, but they can lead to the commission of mortal sin. Explain, as best you can and in your own words, the difference between these two claims.

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